Is there a way to prove that if we are not able to connect the vertices to 1 in the greedy order that has been suggested, then there exists no other answer?
Thanks.
Doubt in 1889B (Codeforces Round 906 Div 1.)
Is there a way to prove that if we are not able to connect the vertices to 1 in the greedy order that has been suggested, then there exists no other answer?
Thanks.